so vice versa - used to be legal for men to beat/rape their woman - does that mean its ok cause it was legal?
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so vice versa - used to be legal for men to beat/rape their woman - does that mean its ok cause it was legal?
what. who here is saying the law was ok or because something was legal it was okayQuote:
Originally Posted by buttons
put the stick down and pick it up at the right end
lmfao ur saying that if someone broke the law in the past then it was valid at the time
I'm just trying to understand if that applies to people who OBEYED the law
it was valid in the legal sense yes. obviously not moral but whoever applies today's morals to the past is a doltQuote:
Originally Posted by buttons
and what do you mean on obeyed the law? are you talking about wrongful convictions that have been overturned? if so that's entirely different to a moral change in attitudes some decades later and issues apologies for it.
wish I could have broken this law